PatrickDinehart
New Member
- Joined
- Sep 3, 2014
- Messages
- 3
I have a noobish question but I haven't been able to figure it out. In physics, we did a design lab (make a lab up on the spot and do it) and I was trying to calculate the correlation between the angle of a ramp to the acceleration of a car that went down the ramp. Of course, we are at the beginning of the year so we're limited to simple kinematics and derivatives/integrals. At a ramp of 0 degrees, the time for the car to go down it is infinite and thus, the acceleration would be calculated under the following premises:
X=x0 + vot + (1/2)a(t^2)
To make this plug able into Excel, I moved a (acceleration) to one side of the equation and plugged in x, x0, v0, and t. The problem here is t is infinite. For reference, the equation ended up being: =0.5*((0+0*(C8)+(C8^2))/1.0385) where C8 is the AVG Time (5 trials 5 times ect).
Is it possible I have used the wrong infinity symbol or is this simply incalculable?
Thanks in advance,
Patrick
X=x0 + vot + (1/2)a(t^2)
To make this plug able into Excel, I moved a (acceleration) to one side of the equation and plugged in x, x0, v0, and t. The problem here is t is infinite. For reference, the equation ended up being: =0.5*((0+0*(C8)+(C8^2))/1.0385) where C8 is the AVG Time (5 trials 5 times ect).
Is it possible I have used the wrong infinity symbol or is this simply incalculable?
Thanks in advance,
Patrick