If anyone is familiar with the Black-Scholes option pricing model, I would greatly appreciate some help. I have replicated all of the calculation logic but I'm having trouble with time to maturity. It's supposed to be the number of days between trade date and expiry date divided by 365 to convert it to years. But when I do this my results become less accurate as time to maturity decreases. I have access to several other models that produce correct results, so I don't know what is wrong with my model.
Here are the inputs to a very simple example:
Cell M3 -- Underlying Price $102
M4 -- Exercise Price $100
M5 -- Today's Date 8/9/12
M6 -- Expiry Date 8/10/12
M7 -- Volatility 25%
M8 -- Risk Free Rate 5%
M9 -- Dividend Yield 1%
M10 -- Time to Expiry = 1 / 365 = 0.00274
I compute the following:
M12 -- d1 = -1.4984 = (LN(M4/M3)+(M8-M9+0.5*M7^2)*M10)/(M7*SQRT(M10))
M13 -- Nd1 = 0.1298 = EXP(-(M12^2)/2)/SQRT(2*PI())
M14 -- d2 = -1.5115 = M12-M7*SQRT(M10)
M15 -- Nd2 = NORMSDIST(M14)
M17 -- Call Price = 0.303 = EXP(-M9*M10)*M3*NORMSDIST(M12)-M4*EXP(-M8*M10)*NORMSDIST(M12-M7*SQRT(M10))
So, the call price of 0.303 makes no sense because the option is $2 in the money with 1 day until expiry. I have confirmed using several different calculators (that don't show me the calculation logic) that the price of the option should be pretty close to $2.
I'm busting my head against the wall with this. Can anyone help?
Here are the inputs to a very simple example:
Cell M3 -- Underlying Price $102
M4 -- Exercise Price $100
M5 -- Today's Date 8/9/12
M6 -- Expiry Date 8/10/12
M7 -- Volatility 25%
M8 -- Risk Free Rate 5%
M9 -- Dividend Yield 1%
M10 -- Time to Expiry = 1 / 365 = 0.00274
I compute the following:
M12 -- d1 = -1.4984 = (LN(M4/M3)+(M8-M9+0.5*M7^2)*M10)/(M7*SQRT(M10))
M13 -- Nd1 = 0.1298 = EXP(-(M12^2)/2)/SQRT(2*PI())
M14 -- d2 = -1.5115 = M12-M7*SQRT(M10)
M15 -- Nd2 = NORMSDIST(M14)
M17 -- Call Price = 0.303 = EXP(-M9*M10)*M3*NORMSDIST(M12)-M4*EXP(-M8*M10)*NORMSDIST(M12-M7*SQRT(M10))
So, the call price of 0.303 makes no sense because the option is $2 in the money with 1 day until expiry. I have confirmed using several different calculators (that don't show me the calculation logic) that the price of the option should be pretty close to $2.
I'm busting my head against the wall with this. Can anyone help?